Hillary Step
The whole point, which seems to be evading you is that the 'entire inhabited earth' to your own admission was representative of the 'then known world'.
If I have admitted it, how is the concept supposedly "evading" me? Is it not rather the case that you simply refuse to accept the fact that the entire inhabited earth can also mean the ENTIRE inhabited earth?
You then make the quantum leap from that understanding and presume that in certain instances it also applied to the whole global arena in the year 2002. You do this with absolutely no evidence but only your own interpretation of the matter.
Compared to your stunted tottering baby steps, I suppose a normal mental stride would appear as a "quantum leap." According to your "reasoning," Jesus' kingdom is not going to rule the entire inhabited earth. You are evidently laboring under the hysterical delusion that God's universal kingdom is going to rule over only select localities, what you might refer to as "localized entire inhabited earths." LOL
Do you appreciate that most theologists disagree with your view of this. Does their opinion count less than yours? If so, why?
Everyone is entitled to an opinion, but popular opinion doesn't establish what the truth of a matter is. Only reason can do that. So-called theologists are no more qualified to interpret the Bible than some homeless guy on the street. I think because of their training they are in some cases less qualified to do so. Based upon what you have tried to put over on this thread, and others, if their reasoning is as twisted and shallow as yours than I can categorically dismiss them as not having any insight into matters pertaining to my faith.
Present some evidence that by the term 'entire inhabited earth', Jesus meant the Global scene in the year 2002.
I present the Bible as evidence, but that's apparently not what you want. But, to a person of faith, the fact that the present system has existed since the time of Christ is proof that Jesus' words still have relevance in the year 2002. How so? Those who would try to confine the fulfillment of Christ's prophecy to the ancient and remote Jerusalem quickly find themselves in a bit of a mess. For example, at Matthew 24:29-31 Jesus foretold that after the initial phase of the tribulation that the sign of the son of man would appear in heaven and that "all the tribes of the earth will beat themselves in lamentation."
According to the sophistries of the "theologists" you recommend, evidently the expression "all the tribes of earth" doesn't really mean "all the tribes of earth," but merely all the tribes of Israel that happened to be dwelling in the entire inhabited earth located at Jerusalem. LOL I would imagine that there is no end to the silliness that an imaginative mind can come up with.
Too, the fact that Christ applied the prophecy of Daniel to himself, where he referred to the Son of man coming upon the clouds of heaven, is proof that the prophecy was intended to have a far-reaching global application. The 7th chapter, which Jesus was making reference to, foretells the end of all human rulership, and states that Christ's rulership will extend to all national groups and languages. After relating the vision Daniel wrote: "Up to this point is the end of the matter." The very fact that we are debating these things is proof that we have not arrived at the envisioned "end of the matter." The Roman Empire system has existed in its various mutations down to this year 2002 and has for a fact extended its tentacles around the earth, as the prophecy indicates that it would. Obviously Jesus' 1st century appearance did not bring an end to Satan's beastly political system; but, according to the prophecies, when the Son of man comes, the present ruling power has his rulership taken away, "in order to annihilate him and to destroy him totally." By no stretch of the imagination, or perhaps better worded...no sane person would argue that the political system has been totally destroyed by Christ's kingdom, as the prophecies mandate.
What is more, returning to the span of verses in Matthew, Jesus said: "And he will send forth his angels with a great trumpet sound, and they will gather his chosen ones together from the four winds, from one extremity of the heavens to their other extremity." Unless we wish to render language and words completely meaningless, expressions such as the above have to be accepted as intending to depict a global phenomenon. Did any such gathering occur after Jerusalem's tribulation in 70 CE? Quite the contrary. Christians who had been living in Judah and Jerusalem fled and were scattered to the proverbial four winds, where they remain until this very moment. The prophecy, however, depicts the opposite as taking place, namely that deputized angels would gather Jehovah's anointed ones from wherever they may be residing on the earth. Anyone, "theologists" included, who insists that expressions such as "from one extremity of the heavens to their other extremity" should be understood as intending to apply to some localized area can simply be dismissed as an unreasoning fool or a petty con man, and in some cases---both.
/ You Know